UK divorce Question

A friend of mine has been married to a Pakistani lady who is a
housewife, and they have a 1 year old child. Marriage has lasted 4
years. My friend owned a house prior to marriage and sold it year an a
half ago as per agreement with his brother prior to marriage - His
brother paid off the remaining mortgage on the property and bought it
from the bank and the deeds are in his name now. Since then his brother
has bought another property for himself and my friend has been living
in that very same property as usual and pays his brother rent and pays
all his bills including council tax, gas electric as normal.

My friend's wife has never worked due to lack of qualifications and
by considering the age of the child - He opened a limited company year
and a half ago which was only run for one year and he closed it down
because of he found it hard to run -

Given his scenario,

1. What route of divorce should he take?
2. How could he be treated by the court with regards to the property
since it is not in his name but it was at the time of marriage and he
was the sole mortgage owner at the time? -
3. What route he should take to minimise the financial implications.
4. His wife was not part of his limited company, and it has been
dissolved how will the court deal with that?
5. How will the court deal with child maintenance etc. There is a
possibility she will take the child out of country as soon as she gets
50% of everything.

Any help will be appreciated.
Vijay